I find it very unlikely that so many positively inclined words would share the same Latin root as Lucifer- especially because they in themselves have no actual connection to the word light, and therefore had no reason to stem from the word if not for the very intentional purpose of associating them with Lucifer.

To me this doesn't seem like as you describe. I would also think nothing of the remote incident. This seems deliberate to me, especially because - and this may be the problem here - I also consider the Romans who taught this language to us to be simply an extension of Babylon, and therefor they would have reason do to just that. I was not going to say until a later part of this series, but I believe Babylon to exist even today in the form of Western society. I do not think it is limited to one country, but to the West as a whole, for it is the same culture, and we do after all call our newborns "baby."

I realise now that without this secondary context in regards to the origins of the language, I might also find the connection between the words less than convincing.