The answer to the third part of (2) is that if a law is morally justifiable (according to the correct theory of morality, whatever it is), and it is adopted through the proper political process, and this law gives someone a legal right to do something, and it is morally permissible for someone to do this thing that he is legally entitled to do, then he has the right in virtue of these moral and legal facts.

Haha... It's great how people can write this stuff and stay so straight.

"So... where did the people who manage the political process get the moral right to change what is legally and therefore morally permissible?"
"They got it like... from the dollar store."