Marcin Luther. Protestantism. Did anti-Semitism already exist at that time? Theme TABU
Martin Luther Religious of the Augustinians. He joined him on 17 July 1505. There are many hypotheses as to why he did this, but none of them have satisfactory evidence. It is true that this was not a vocation, but as Martin Luther himself was to say, "I became a monk against my father, my mother, God and the devil".
Luther's culmination was the situation in the Catholic Church, where the faithful received indulgences for payment, where he considered the redemption of sin for money to be unacceptable and had nothing to do with true penance or sorrow.
Let's come back to the question from the title of the post.
Luther initially hoped that the Jews would convert to his views, emphasizing that Jesus belonged to the Jewish family (in the letter Dass Jesus ein Geborner Judei się 1543) and the rejection of the Jews by Christians prevented the conversion to Christianity. When Martin Luther saw that the Jews were not rebellious, he became their fervent opponent. It was then that he began to write in his works that Jews were the cause of all misfortunes. He said that one should "set their synagogues, schools and houses on fire. Take them away with you all the prayer books. Forcing people to earn bread in sweat of their foreheads. In general, there were 7 demands concerning the Jews in his work "About the Jews and their lies".
I recommend that you read more about this topic. There is a lot of information on the Internet that I just didn't want to copy. It is true that, although it is not possible to attribute to these demands what happened during the Second World War, it is true that he wrote what he did.
Martin Luther, although he is a saint in the United Kingdom. He is certainly a controversial person, but he is also a TABU subject because of his religious contacts and relations with other religions. Nobody wants to create unnecessary problems and quarrels.
I decided to write it to create a mini discussion and this is my presumption.