it is rather ironic that you cite Jn 8:24 ...because that is the point

Pg 71 ….Trinitarianism is just as Anti-Christ as much as is ISLAM, JW, LDS, ROMAN CATHOLIC et al because (they all confess the Christ/messiah came in the flesh, Yes even Islam claims Jesus was the Jewish messiah/Christ who was to come) they all deny WHO it was (what person) that came (to be the Christ) in the flesh!?!....[ "WHO" it was (what person) that came "IN THE FLESH", IS THE DETERMINING FACTOR IN WHAT IT MEANS TO BE “ANT-CHRIST”! To deny the father is to deny the son because they are one and the same person that came in the flesh!

(1) God uses specific words that demand ONLY ONE PERSON
(2) God uses specific descriptions that demand ONLY ONE PERSON
(3) GOD specifically uses what some call a heresy namely modalism to describe father and son
(4) Jesus specifically claims to be the father and the father specifically claims to be the son et al
(5) Man is made in the image of God and it is that image that God specifically describes himself and father and son a man can be a father and son but God can be his own son ….. because what makes and defines a father and what makes defines a son has NOTHING TO DO with how many different persons are present!?!?

To deny who is the person of the man Jesus is to deny who the person of the father is because they are the same person. If they were not the same person then a denial of one person would not be a denial of the other person automatically because by definition two different persons are not synonymous. The whole point to these passages is showing that the person of the son and the father are synonymous. The fact that you confess that a man named Jesus was the son of God does not acknowledge the person of the son and the person of the father. The son is the word of God to deny the word is to deny the father who sent that word. To deny the word of God (the son) is to deny the God (father) who sent that word. Even if you were still unsure that the father and the son were the same person, you would still be left with the unavoidable fact that if the father and the son are the same person, then to deny who is the person of the father is to deny who is the person of the son and to deny who is the person of the son is to deny who is the person of the father. Thus, as a Trinitarian there could be no expectation of salvation as an anti-Christ.

John 14: 8. Philip saith unto him, Lord, SHEW US THE FATHER,.. 9. Jesus saith unto him, HAVE I BEEN SO LONG TIME WITH YOU, AND YET HAST THOU NOT KNOWN ME, Philip? he that hath SEEN ME HATH SEEN THE FATHER; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? The "oneness" between Christ and the father is not comparable to a man and his wife, for only a fool would say "When you have seen me you have seen my wife, how sayest thou then, Shew us your wife?" Notice they asked to see THE FATHER and the response was Jn 14:9 ..“HAVE I BEEN SO LONG time with you, and yet hast THOU NOT KNOW ME, Philip.....Now image some fool trying to claim that statement if you asked to see his wife!?!!? The whole point to Christ statements is that he is the SAME person as the father [you want to see the FATHER but have I been with you but you don’t know me!?!?!]”

NOW WE GET TO THE HOLY SPIRIT:

…………..17. Even THE SPIRIT OF TRUTH; (Jn 14:6 I AM the way, THE TRUTH,) whom the world cannot receive, .. for HE DEWLLETH WITH YOU, (present tense/standing next to them in the flesh) and SHALL BE IN YOU... (future tense “In them”) 18. I will not leave you comfortless: I WILL COME TO YOU (future tense “In them”) Note: The spirit of Christ is the sprit of God and the holy spirit that is why Christ said “I will come to you” (to comfort them, because Christ is the comforter). The spirit was standing next to them in flesh... ....latter it would come to them to be inside of them (inside of their flesh as the spirit we are given).....that is why. he would send the spirit...... However, Jesus himself here makes the point that the same person who was the HOLY SPIRIT that would come was standing next to them but lets them know “I will come to you again to be Inside of you” The present condition was external to them but in the flesh dwelling with them but, the future condition would be internal to them .. Rom 8:9 When you “see” or “pray” to the father (in the name of the father covered further in Ch 7) you are “seeing” and praying to Jesus and visa versa and Jesus will be the one to “come” and answer because father and son are just different parts/manifestations of the same person!?

James 2:19. Thou believest that there is ONE GOD; thou doest well: THE DEVILS ALSO BELIEVE, and tremble.

First notice that James makes a point of stating a belief in ONE GOD as opposed to the pagan practices of that day of worshiping multiple different persons as one of multple different persons who are god... Trinitarins do not even have a claim to believing that there is one God, Calling your pantheon one God does not magically make the pantheon of god persons disappear or force reality to conform to your “confessions of faith”!?! Three different persons who are each god with different amounts of god knowledge power and authority does not fool anyone except the fools who will believe that the three are one and one is three and you have called on the name of the Lord because, well…..you confessed all of that, so it must be true. Now the words of Christ are spirit (Jn 6:63 …the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.) the words of Christ only describe and define God as “ONE” and as we shall see in chapter six a specific Greek word that ONLY refers to ONE person when speaking of individuals. It is outright willful blatant stupidity to attempt to claim that God is an individual of three different persons and the spirit that claims God is three different persons is NOT the spirit of Christ!

God had NO SON before Christ was born........ it makes this point clear in the OT as well as in the NT period! ..But YES JESUS HAD ALWAYS EXISTED!?!

OT…..Ecclesiastes 4:8. There is ONE ALONE, and there is NOT A SECOND; yea, HE HATH NEITHER CHILD (BEN/SON) nor brother: yet is there no end of all his labour; neither is his eye satisfied with riches; neither saith he, For whom do I labour, and bereave my soul of good? This is also vanity, yea, it is a sore travail.....................(Solomon here is mentioning in his discourse and making reference to GOD as comparison/ contrast to the vanity of men....Solomon here is NOT talking about himself nor is he talking about some or any old lonely man that happens to be out there.... i only mention this because i get the most ridiculous comments sometimes)......................

NT……Heb 1:5 Thou art my Son, THIS DAY (at a certain point & specific day)………. HAVE I BEGOTTEN THEE? And again, I WILL BE TO HIM A FATHER, AND HE SHALL BE TO ME A SON? 6. And again, WHEN HE BRINGETH IN The first begotten into the world ............ ?

John 17: 4-5 does not help the trinitarians because as demonstrated JESUS has ALWAYS Existed but NOT always as a son and John 17: 4-5 does not say that Jesus was a son before the world began it ONLY speaks to the fact that Jesus who is the son was in existence with the father before the foundation of the world....Again trinitarian faulty exegesis. They like to ignore the plain scriptures in favor of oblique references and interpret them in a way that directly contradicts clear passages and even though John 17:4-5 is still just as true just as describe here as the right arm of God that would latter come and be born into male (son) human flesh .....The male child was born of a virgin but the male human flesh was animated or only had life via that part of God considered to be his own right arm and as such that male human flesh was literally the human flesh of God since it was A SON and God had no other human flesh (or son) it was literally the ONLY or unique birthed BEGOTTON SON (male human flesh) OF GOD (belonging to / the possession "of God") Jesus is a son because what was physical born was male human flesh and a son that was the possession of God because it was God in that male (son) human flesh .NOT because some other different god person who was not a powerful and knowledgeable as the father God person! .....Except you believe it you will die in your sins..

There is alot of perspective that folks seem to gloss over and do not consider. Of course Jesus has always existed because Jesus is nothing but that part of the spirit of God considered his right hand that God would send and put into flesh via a physical birth…However, from another perspective it is just as equally true that, Jesus the man ( “son of man”/ “son of God”) did not exist before he was born into the flesh (ergo Ps 2:7…this day have I begotten thee; Lk 1:35. )….because before he was born into the flesh he was just God specifically the right arm of God that was promised to come latter. That part of God that God would send into flesh has always existed but that part of God has not always existed in flesh or as a man!?!.....Thus when folks argue over or point fingers on whether or not Jesus existed before he was born into the physical world has everything to do with perspective. No man (or “son of man”) existed for all of eternity prior to the time before God(Jesus) created Man….There was only God (Jesus) who created man and all things…This brings us to another important point and concept to understand. Man is a spirit animating flesh. When God put himself (that part of his eternally existent self) into flesh via a physical birth then God literally became a man and a son. That son of man did not exist prior to the point that man was born. However, that part of the spirit of God that was born into that flesh had always existed because it is God in the same way that if I put my right hand into a leather glove (of human flesh) that part of me that is put into that leather glove existed before during and after it leaves that leather glove of flesh. Never the less, the man did not exist until the male human flesh (son) Jesus was born. The God which is the spirit because God is a spirit and Jesus is God had always existed before he was born into the world but he did not exist as a man (or “son of man”) prior to the time that he himself as God created man/ “son of man”!?! Before the son came into the world he was only considered to be the right hand of God, that would come and when it did he would be called the only begotten son of God, for the very reason that while many have been called "sons of God" Jesus was the ONLY BEGOTTEN son God had via a human women!?!?