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RE: Rights- reciprocal or absolute?

in #liberty7 years ago

correct...once you initiate force all bets are OFF.
when you break the law you are no longer entitled to the protection OF the law.
(assuming the law is just...hah hah)

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That's exactly right. Once you violate someone's property - once you commit that act of trespass - you can't turn around and say "wait, you can't try to stop me! That would be trespassing against me and my property!" It's nonsensical. Rights aren't absolute like that. If they were, then self-defense would be an act of aggression, which is just silly.

Rights are absolute. It doesn't violate someone's rights when you stop them from violating someone else's rights, because no one has the right to violate anyone's rights.

That no one has the right to violate anyone else's rights is superfluous, so that doesn't really add to the conversation. But let's take what you've just posited. You've established that everyone has a right to non-aggression, and that this right is absolute. How then can you violate the right of someone to non-aggression in defense of another? Put another way, if A initiates aggression against B, not you, why is it not initiating aggression against A to come to B's defense? A hasn't initiated aggression against you, just against B.

Defense is never aggression, and if someone has the right to defend themselves from aggression, you have the right to do the same on their behalf. You aren't violating anyone's rights by defending someone from their aggression (although they'd probably want to convince others that you are).

Yes, but why? Why do you have that right?

Because you have the absolute human right to do anything whatsoever that doesn't violate anyone else's equal and identical rights. Anything.

Does it violate someone's rights if you wear red and green striped pants?
No. You have a right to wear red and green striped pants.

Does it violate anyone's rights if you smoke Cannabis?
No. You have a right to smoke Cannabis.

Does it violate anyone's rights to defend them from an attacker or thief?
No. You have the right to defend people from an attacker or thief.

Does it violate anyone rights to attack them if they didn't violate you first?
Yes. You have no right to initiate force.

Does it violate anyone's rights if you use force to stop them from initiating force, against you or against a third party?
No. No one has the right to initiate force, so stopping them doesn't violate them.

You can try to complicate anything if that's your goal, and you'll probably trip up a lot of people. Why spend your effort making things worse, though?

I'm not overcomplicating things. I'm attempting to be more precise. The lack of precision in asserting that a right to non-aggression is a priori true, without any additional examination, is why you've arrived at the conclusion that this right is absolute.

"Does it violate anyone's rights if you use force to stop them from initiating force, against you or against a third party?
No. No one has the right to initiate force, so stopping them doesn't violate them."

"Does it violate anyone rights to attack them if they didn't violate you first?
Yes. You have no right to initiate force."

Either of these can be true, but not both, and this is the issue I've been trying to drive home. It does not follow that because you can defend yourself from a person attack you, that an uninvolved third party can do the same absent some pre-existing obligation to do so. The third party was not violated by the attacker. By your own rule, the third party cannot use force against the attacker without violating the rule you've established. This illustrates the problem with using imprecise language. It invites all sorts of equivocation.

However, if you move beyond non-aggression, into the fundamental private property right from which it arises, it is plainly evident why you can come to the defense of a third party, and why it would not be initiation of force from you as a third party to the conflict.

"...this right is absolute"".
ALL rights are absolute. That's the definition of "rights", like it or not.

We have different definitions of "rights". What you call "rights" I call "privileges", and you don't seem to have a concept for what I call "rights".

To me a right is anything that doesn't violate anyone else's identical and equal rights. If it doesn't initiate force or violate someone's property, you have the right to do it. Period. That is obviously not the concept you have in mind when you hear/use the word "rights". Therefore, we are not communicating.

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