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RE: Reading the Bible is "Like Picking Out Diamonds from Dunghills"--Part 1

in #god8 years ago (edited)

Let me elaborate on what I mean when I say that you interpret the Bible differently from any other book.

In any other context, and with any other book, you would consciously or unconsciously employ certain "rules of thumb" (formally called rules of textual criticism) for ferreting out the truth. You wouldn't just take the author's contentions at face value but would instead scrutinize the author's motives and biases and agenda to figure out the "true" message--one free of the author's spin. And you'd do this regardless of whether you were reading a history book, a religious book or a book of fiction. Humans do this all the time everyday in our ordinary interactions with others.

Although the rules of textual criticism can be confusing, the most useful is quite simple and intuitive: Facts that go against the interest of the author/speaker (so-called "admissions against interest") are almost certainly true, while those that advance the author's agenda can't necessarily be accepted without further confirmation and so must be suspect.

For instance, we can be almost certain that those elements of the gospels that hint at or suggest that Rome was responsible for Jesus's death are true since we know for a fact that non-Jewish, Roman editors during the time of Constantine/Eusebius compiled and revised our present day gospels, putting them in their current and “final” form. Those Romans would have been inclined to minimize Rome's involvement in Jesus's death, if anything. Thus, "unhelpful facts" (such as the fact that Jesus was tried and sentenced by the Roman official, Pilate) constitute an admission that goes against the Roman editors' interests, and it is almost certainly true. It remains in our gospels very likely only because it was so well known that it could not be subsequently denied or deleted, only subsequently “spun” (as the last gospel, the Gospel of John, does so well).

Why is this rule of textual criticism so useful in making sense of accounts of historical events? Well, when compiling a history, it goes without saying that unhelpful facts are only mentioned when they are so well known that they can't credibly be denied or ignored. By contrast, helpful "facts" can often be invented and secretly added to an account so as to change the reader's impression of the unhelpful ones without drawing too much suspicion. Thus, it is much easier to add a "clarifying fact" (even an invented one) to an historical account than it is to deny or ignore the original well-known historical fact altogether.

Propagandists do this all the time. In modern times we call the process of acknowledging unhelpful facts while supplementing them with falsehoods so as to change the overall impression "spin". But, spin is not a new invention. Thus, when reading a history, any history, admissions against interest are almost always true, while those little "helpful" facts--those that advance the interests of the writer of the history by attempting to soften the impact of the unhelpful ones--must be taken with a large grain of salt. It does not mean for certain that they are untrue, but we should at least seek independent corroboration before buying into them lock, stock, and barrel.

Thus, because our Bibles were compiled and edited primarily by Gentiles in churches founded primarily by Paul, and because Rome redacted and edited our Bibles further during the time of Constantine, any remaining admissions against Paul's or Rome's interests are very likely true (and are included only because the were so well-known that they couldn't be credibly denied), while anything that makes Paul or Rome look "good" or "less culpable" is potentially false and must at least be second-guessed.

For example, non-biblical sources present Pilate as a cruel, hot-headed and blood-thirsty dictator who was ultimately recalled to Rome to explain his harsh policies, but the Bible presents him as a reasonable and very reluctant executioner of Jesus who went so far as to "wash his hands" of responsibility. Thus, the fact that Pilate (a Roman) sentenced Jesus to death is an unfavorable fact as to Rome and is therefore almost certainly true, while the "spin" that Pilate did so very reluctantly and only to appease the rowdy Jewish crowd, is, given all we know about him form other sources, likely false. That Jesus counted anti-Roman zealots among his family and followers can't be denied (even by the Bible), so this fact is almost certainly true, but the Bible's suggestion that Jesus was a pacifist who opposed their cause must be questioned. That Jesus criticized the establishment Pharisees and Sadducees is almost certainly true, but not the Bible's suggestion that he did so only because they were so stubbornly JEWISH and LOYAL to the law of Moses. The truth is almost certainly the opposite: Jesus opposed them because they were COLLABORATORS who had softened the requirements of God's law (in matters such a circumcision, diet, divorce, etc.) in order to make accommodations with Roman culture.

Anyone who raises children can immediately understand why this technique of textual criticism—accepting “unhelpful” facts as true while questioning “helpful” ones--is such a useful means of getting at the truth of a situation. Consider this parenting example:

A child "borrows" his parent's car without permission and then in gets into an auto accident. The parents are angry and begin questioning the child. What does the child then (rather predictably) say? Something like this: "Yeah, Dad, it's true I snuck out with the car, and I'm really sorry for that, but I was never going to do anything bad with the car, and I tried to call you to ask permission first but I couldn’t get a hold of you. And, besides, the accident wasn't my fault!"

Well, the first assertion (that the kid snuck out with the car) is almost certainly true and can be taken at face value since the child admitted against his interest what simply couldn't credibly be denied. But the second one (that he didn't intend to do anything "bad" with it) and the third one (that he tried to call to get permission first), and the fourth one (that the accident wasn’t his fault), simply can’t be accepted at face value by any self-respecting parent. If parents expect to get to the truth, they will have to delve a little deeper.

This is one of the major problems with "faithful" interpretations of the Bible, those that insist that the Bible is "infallible". They never “delve a little deeper.” They never question the motives or biases of the author of the text. Rather, they simply accept every word at face value, assuming it not only to be “true”, but also “infallibly” so. Is that really a reasonable way of getting to the truth of any matter? By accepting the words of one side to the story without question? Would we interpret ANY other document in ANY other context that way?

Of course we wouldn't.

In short, despite your attempts to rationalize it away, your double standard (of interpreting the Bible differently than anything else) betrays the truth--that you are willing to abandon reason and common sense to preserve your "faithful" understanding of Christianity. Why? Because it makes you feel good. It gives you hope.

Even it were true that "when you eliminate God you eliminate objective truth"...so what? Respectfully, you are coming at the question ass backwards. You have a natural bias, a strong desire, that objective truth exists. And the only way to validate that bias is to believe in God. And so you believe. "It makes me feel better if there's objective truth in the world. For there to be objective truth, God must exist. Therefore, God must exist." Surely you see that's a non sequitur.

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I must say I enjoyed reading this response, sean-king. You have a very interesting point of view and your time spent studying this subject really shows! But I still disagree with your logic on several fundamental levels. You approach the subject of the Bible from that of a postmodernist. Postmodernism is a form of deconstructionism and has the same general philosophy that words and language cannot hold any inherent truth. Language in and of itself cannot be regarded as true, because truth is always subjective if we're not considering any existence of objective truth (God of the Bible or other religious theology). If this is the case, your argument of textual criticism won't work. Does the author really know what they meant? How can we have any idea what's true or not if we don't have anything to base truth on? Empirical data could play a role, but with history we can only give our best educated guess as to what happened since we weren't there.

But if we go with your argument of textual criticism in the context that you portrayed of anything adverse to self-interest is more likely true than anything self-rewarding, the Bible still stands up quite tall to the scrutiny. Here's a somewhat lengthy quote from theopedia.com that sums up my thoughts better than I could:
""At present, we have more than 6,000 manuscript copies of the Greek New Testament or portions thereof. No other work of Greek literature can boast of such numbers. Homer's Iliad, the greatest of all Greek classical works, is extant in about 650 manuscripts; and Euripides' tragedies exist in about 330 manuscripts. The numbers on all the other works of Greek literature are far less. Furthermore, it must be said that the amount of time between the original composition and the next surviving manuscript is far less for the New Testament than for any other work in Greek literature. The lapse for most classical Greek works is about eight hundred to a thousand years; whereas the lapse for many books in the New Testament is around one hundred years. Because of the abundant wealth of manuscripts and because several of the manuscripts are dated in the early centuries of the church, New Testament textual scholars have a great advantage over classical textual scholars. The New Testament scholars have the resources to reconstruct the original text of the New Testament with great accuracy, and they have produced some excellent editions of the Greek New Testament.

"Finally, it must be said that, although there are certainly differences in many of the New Testament manuscripts, not one fundamental doctrine of the Christian faith rests on a disputed reading. Frederic Kenyon, a renowned paleographer and textual critic, affirmed this when he said, 'The Christian can take the whole Bible in his hand and say without fear or hesitation that he holds in it the true Word of God, handed down without essential loss from generation to generation throughout the centuries.' " -- Philip W. Comfort, The Complete Guide to Bible Versions, (Wheaton, Illinois: Tyndale House Publishers, Inc.) 1991."

But I have to ask why you think Romans would want to minimize their role in Jesus' death? Most Romans weren't Christians, and Christians were seen mostly as a threat at the time that Constantine was attempting to merge the two cultures. It seems like more of an assumption to support your argument than backed by historically supported evidence.

If we stick with unhelpful facts only making it to print if they're so well known that people would immediately shun them, why doesn't the Old Testament portray the prophets and God's chosen people differently? They make horrible decisions and are generally disobedient and evil a lot of the time. The NT has an exaltation of women and the marginalized. This was completely counter-cultural for the region and religions of that day. Why would it admit that women were the first to the tomb when women were not regarded as important or relevant to many stories at all from that time? There are even more examples that I'm not able to recall, but the question stands. Why would the authors of scripture have changed things immediately to suit their own agenda? Could it be that so many people wrote about what actually happened? 6,000 manuscript copies is a lot of copies to all be so cohesive with each other. But just to clarify, I don't disagree with you that things should always be closely examined and that history written with obvious glorification should be scrutinized to make sure it's not propaganda. Hence the plethora of scholarly subjects, such as hermeneutics and textual criticism, that put all of these manuscripts to the fire.

As for Pilate acting in a reasonable fashion instead of being cruel, I wouldn't say he didn't act cruel. He let a prisoner go and crucified Jesus to appease an angry mob. To me, that's what any Roman ruler would do. They wanted cooperation from the already established power found in the Pharisees and other powerful religious groups. Why wouldn't he second guess killing someone as contested as Jesus? Also, Jesus himself was a Jew and was loyal to the law of Moses. Where do you get the notion that that's why he was in opposition to the Pharisees? To me the Bible clearly shows he was in opposition to them because they were using God's laws for their own personal gain instead of God's glorification. He basically says listen to what they teach but don't do what they do. Jesus himself fulfilled the OT law and turned Jewish religion on it's head by saying he was the way to God, not all of the religious works anymore. Salvation and then bearing fruit, not bearing fruit in order to be saved. Again, completely counter-cultural.

I like your example of parenting with textual criticism. As a father of two, the truth is almost always smeared a little bit when it comes to children. But that doesn't mean it's ALWAYS smeared. There is still a chance that they did call, didn't mean to wreck the car, and that the accident wasn't their fault. Again, we agree to be skeptical, but the translation of 6,000 manuscripts to one child taking a car without permission is an incredibly long leap with a lot of error along the way. For the sake of the definition of textual critisicm, I see your point. But beyond that it just doesn't hold water.

Also, we're in agreement that it's not logical to say that the Bible is "infallible". But stating that something is infallible conveys that you believe in some objective truth that exposes fallacy. I believe that God revealed himself to humanity over thousands of years and we have those stories (as well preserved as a broken humanity can have available). The authors of the NT did not present themselves in positive ways very often. Paul comes across as egotistic, but further study reveals that he's only portraying what a church leader needs to be like, and without confidence and faith in Jesus people aren't going to listen. Then most of them died in prison. Not very glorious.

I don't abandon reason and common sense when I read the Bible. I just have an objective truth given by God that I base my reason and common sense on when I read the Bible or any other book. And people need hope. The Bible offers the only logical form of hope for people on Earth. Without an end to our means, all really is hopeless unless we spend our whole lives trying to convince ourselves that it's not. Your contention of "...so what?" in regards to the concept of God and objective truth just demonstrates to me that maybe you haven't given proper logical thought to the implications of a loss of objective truth. Subjective truth can argue convincingly that Hitler was justified, and that's a huge problem. It's not a non sequitur to consider God's existence as the only possible reason for objective truth and ethics unless you have distinctly chosen to not believe in God. But there is no empirical evidence against God, so you would be doing yourself a great disservice from many logical and philosophical standpoints.

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