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RE: Does Misogyny Exist?

in #feminism8 years ago (edited)

"Often it ends as a statistical rule, like that "in 99% (or simply most) cases" so the exception to the rule does not negate the rule like I was saying. I fucking swear

It forces the rule to be modified, so it technically negates it. Dude, read some Popper at the very least, you really excel at making fool of yourself.

A statistical rule is not an absolute rule with exceptions, it's a statistical rule. It may say that there are 90%, 60% or 40% having some X.

they are still male. that is why they have x and y even if y doesn't work. it does not change anything.

RLY? That what would make them male doesn't work to the extent that one can have sex with such a person and it does not change anything? Dude, your denial of reality is astounding.

that is a good question. i do not have an answer to that one.

Exactly, you do not have. Because there's no good answer to that one. Except to accept reality that sometimes (and that's way more than 0.0032%) genes, phenotype, behavior and identification are not in agreement. Which some people refuse because of their ideology.

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