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     6 years ago 

    because (a*a) = a^2
    and ( (a+1) * (a-1) ) = (a^2 - 1^2) = a^2 - 1
    [3rd binomial formula]

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    1 vote
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     6 years ago 

    Great work on the proof!!

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     6 years ago 

    WARNING! The comment by david-ams below links to a known phishing site that could steal your account. Do not open links from users you do not trust. Do not provide your private keys to any third party websites.

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    3 votes
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     6 years ago 

    Thanks for the heads up!

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       6 years ago 

      Great tip! I love "formulas" like this

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         6 years ago 

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