There are a few examples in history, and a plethora of modern ones, but that doesn't matter, because even with no examples, I would still be correct, as forcing a non-violent individual to do or pay for something involuntarily (no consent) they do not wish do (as is done when a majority outvotes a minority) in a democracy is obviously immoral.

Besides, your contention is that if it's not historically proven, it cannot be right. That's silly. The abolition of slavery was not "historically proven," either. Should people have required historical proof before ending it?