When we look at certain actions which have been against the law for millenia, such as theft, rape or murder, there is one ingredient which can turn something from an innocent act into a crime, and it is consent. So when a government takes money against someone's consent, raids a house or takes plants, should we consider those actions immoral, and evil?
I would actually say that a violation of consent is the root definition of determining evil... An easy example, you walk into the room, you see two people having sex. The mechanics of it are identical. What's the one thing that could make it rape?
A lack of consent.
Alright. You see someone - "I'm gonna take this mic and run off with it" - might be a gift. My mate Kurt here gave me a nice mic. Or it might be theft. What's the one ingredient that could make it make it theft?
Consent. Lack of consent.
Now we're talking about to get out we don't matter theft and rape. Is there any reason why we should expect the two things to have the same core definition?
Now you see someone injecting someone in the arm while they're sleeping and the heart monitor goes flat and the person dies. Might be assisted death, might be euthanasia.
Might be murder.
What's the one ingredient? The same, consent. Through deduction you take all the other ingredients of the situation, all the mechanics involved and whatever involved in sex or in taking something or in killing somebody and you find the same lone ingredient makes
it evil or good. What we can actually draw from that is that the core definition the root definition of the term "evil" as humans mean it is violation of consent. So then if you
take, let's say what's the difference between government and an
opt-in service provider?
So when we say government is evil we're not talking euphemisms, we're not being cute.
We're saying the core definition of both terms are a perfect match.
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