I just noticed this comment. Isn't "the Law of Moses" wording used extensively in both the Old and the New Testaments? I just did a cursory word search for that phrase and it appears over 30 times in both Testaments. So, who here as a serious lack of understanding of the foundational books of the Bible? Just like last year when you argued that Jesus wasn't indeed God. For which you later corrected yourself, thankfully. It seems to me that you like to quote verses out of context to prove your present talking points.

A text, taken out of context becomes the pretext for a proof text.